2018-2022 Technician Pool – Correct Answers Only

T1A01 (C) [97.1]

Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service as stated in the FCC rules and regulations?

Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art



T1A02 (C) [97.1]

Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?




T1A03 (D) [97.119(b)(2)]

What are the FCC rules regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

It is encouraged



T1A04 (A) [97.5(b)(1)]

How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?




T1A05 (C) [97.7]

What is proof of possession of an FCC-issued operator/primary license grant?

The control operator’s operator/primary station license must appear in the FCC ULS consolidated licensee database



T1A06 (C) [97.3(a)(9)]

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a “beacon”?

An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities



T1A07 (C) [97.3(a)(41)]

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a “space station”?

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface



T1A08 (B) [97.3(a)(22)]

Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?

Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs



T1A09 (C) [97.3(a)(22)]

Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations



T1A10 (D) [97.3(a)(38), 97.407]

Which of the following describes the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

  1. A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
  2. A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
  3. An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization
  4. All of these choices are correct






T1A11 (B) [97.101 (d)]

When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?

At no time



T1B01 (B)

What is the International Telecommunications Union (ITU)?

A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues



T1B02 (B) [97.301, 97.207(c)]

Which amateur radio stations may make contact with an amateur radio station on the International Space Station (ISS) using 2 meter and 70 cm band frequencies?

Any amateur holding a Technician or higher-class license



T1B03 (B) [97.301(a)]

Which frequency is within the 6 meter amateur band?

52.525 MHz



T1B04 (A) [97.301(a)]

Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?

2 meter band



T1B05 (B) [97.305(c)]

What is the limitation for emissions on the frequencies between 219 and 220 MHz?

Fixed digital message forwarding systems only



T1B06 (B) [97.301(e), 97.305]

On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

10 meters only



T1B07 (A) [97.305(a), (c)]

Which of the following VHF/UHF frequencies ranges are limited to CW only?

50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz



T1B08 (A) [97.303]

Which of the following is a result of the fact that the Amateur Radio Service is secondary in all or portions of some amateur bands (such as portions of the 70 cm band)?

U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those portions, and must avoid interfering with them



T1B09 (D) [97.101(a), 97.301(a-e)]

Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

  1. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
  2. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
  3. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
  4. All of these choices are correct






T1B10 (D) [97.301(e), 97.305(c)]

Which of the following HF bands have frequencies available to the Technician class operator for RTTY and data transmissions?

10 meters only



T1B11 (A) [97.313]

What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using their assigned portions of the HF bands?

200 watts



T1B12 (D) [97.313(b)]

Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

1500 watts



T1C01 (D) [97.9(a), 97.17(a)]

For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

Technician, General, Amateur Extra



T1C02 (D) [97.19]

Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

Any licensed amateur



T1C03 (A) [97.117]

What types of international communications is an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?

Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character



T1C04 (A) [97.107]

When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreign country?

When the foreign country authorizes it



T1C05 (A)

Which of the following is a valid call sign for a Technician class amateur radio station?




T1C06 (D) [97.5(a)(2)]

From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?

From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States



T1C07 (B) [97.23]

What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide and maintain a correct mailing address with the FCC?

Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license



T1C08 (C) [97.25]

What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator amateur radio license grant?

Ten years




T1C09 (A) [97.21(a)(b)]

What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed?

Two years



T1C10 (C) [97.5a]

How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you operate a transmitter on an Amateur Radio Service frequency?

As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database



T1C11 (A) [97.21(b)]

If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on Amateur Radio Service frequencies?

No, transmitting is not allowed until the FCC license database shows that the license has been renewed



T1D01 (A) [97.111(a)(1)]

With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications



T1D02 (B) [97.113(b),97.111(b)]

Under which of the following circumstances may an amateur radio station make one-way transmissions?

When transmitting code practice, information bulletins, or transmissions necessary to provide emergency communications



T1D03 (C) [97.211(b), 97.215(b), 97.114(a)(4)]

When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to hide their meaning?

Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft



T1D04 (A) [97.113(a)(4), 97.113(c)]

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications



T1D05 (A) [97.113(a)(3)(ii)]

When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis



T1D06 (B) [97.113(a)(4)]

What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

Any such language is prohibited



T1D07 (B) [97.113(d)]

What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?

Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations



T1D08 (B) [97.113(a)(3)(iii)]

In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution



T1D09 (A) [97.113(5)(b)]

Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

Only where such communications directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property



T1D10 (D) [97.3(a)(10)]

What is the meaning of the term “broadcasting” in the FCC rules for the Amateur Radio Service?

Transmissions intended for reception by the general public



T1D11 (D) [97.119(a)]

When may an amateur station transmit without on-the-air identification?

When transmitting signals to control model craft



T1E01 (D) [97.7(a)]

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?




T1E02 (D) [97.301, 97.207(c)]

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency



T1E03 (A) [97.103(b)]

Who must designate the station control operator?

The station licensee



T1E04 (D) [97.103(b)]

What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station?

The class of operator license held by the control operator



T1E05 (C) [97.3(a)(14)]

What is an amateur station control point?

The location at which the control operator function is performed



T1E06 (A) [97.301]

When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Amateur Extra class operator segment of the amateur bands?

At no time



T1E07 (D) [97.103(a)]

When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible



T1E08 (A) [97.3(a)(6), 97.205(d)]

Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

Repeater operation



T1E09 (D) [97.109(c)]

Which of the following is true of remote control operation?

  1. The control operator must be at the control point
  2. A control operator is required at all times
  3. The control operator indirectly manipulates the controls
  4. All these choices are correct



T1E10 (B) [97.3(a)(39)]

Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

Operating the station over the internet



T1E11 (D) [97.103(a)]

Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?

The station licensee



T1F01 (B) [97.103(c)]

When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?

At any time upon request by an FCC representative



T1F02 (C) [97.119 (a)]

When using tactical identifiers such as “Race Headquarters” during a community service net operation, how often must your station transmit the station’s FCC-assigned call sign?

At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication



T1F03 (D) [97.119(a)]

When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?

At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication



T1F04 (C) [97.119(b)(2)]

Which of the following is an acceptable language to use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band?

The English language



T1F05 (B) [97.119(b)(2)]

What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission



T1F06 (D) [97.119(c)]

Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission?

  1. KL7CC stroke W3
  2. KL7CC slant W3
  3. KL7CC slash W3
  4. All of these choices are correct



T1F07 (B) [97.115(a)(2)]

Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a Technician class control operator?

The foreign station must be one with which the U.S. has a third-party agreement



T1F08 (A) [97.3(a)(47)]

What is meant by the term “Third Party Communications”?

A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person



T1F09 (C) [97.3(a)(40)]

What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

Repeater station



T1F10 (A) [97.205(g)]

Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?

The control operator of the originating station



T1F11 (B) [97.5(b)(2)]

Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

The club must have at least four members



T2A01 (B)

Which of the following is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?

Plus or minus 600 kHz



T2A02 (A)

What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?

146.520 MHz



T2A03 (A)

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?

Plus or minus 5 Mhz



T2A04 (B)

What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station’s call sign?

Say the station’s call sign, then identify with your call sign



T2A05 (C)

How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign



T2A06 (A)

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

Identify the transmitting station



T2A07 (A)

What is meant by “repeater offset?”

The difference between a repeater’s transmit frequency and its receive frequency





T2A08 (D)

What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?

Calling any station


T2A09 (B)

What brief statement indicates that you are listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

Your call sign



T2A10 (A)

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band



T2A11 (C)

What kind of communication is taking place when an amateur station is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?




T2A12 (D)

Which of the following is a guideline when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?

  1. Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
  2. Ask if the frequency is in use
  3. Make sure you are in your assigned band
  4. All of these choices are correct



T2B01 (C)

What is the most common use of the “reverse split” function of a VHF/UHF transceiver?

Listen on a repeater’s input frequency



T2B02 (D)

What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?




T2B03 (B)

If a station is not strong enough to keep a repeater’s receiver squelch open, which of the following might allow you to receive the station’s signal?

Listen on the repeater input frequency



T2B04 (D)

Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

  1. Improper transceiver offset
  2. The repeater may require a proper CTCSS tone from your transceiver
  3. The repeater may require a proper DCS tone from your transceiver
  4. All of these choices are correct




T2B05 (C)

What might be the problem if a repeater user says your transmissions are breaking up on voice peaks?
You are talking too loudly






T2B06 (A)

What type of tones are used to control repeaters linked by the Internet Relay Linking Project (IRLP) protocol?




T2B07 (C)

How can you join a digital repeater’s “talk group”?

Program your radio with the group’s ID or code



T2B08 (A)

Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

Common courtesy should prevail, but no one has absolute right to an amateur frequency



T2B09 (B)

What is a “talk group” on a DMR digital repeater?

A way for groups of users to share a channel at different times without being heard by other users on the channel



T2B10 (A)

Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?




T2B11 (B)

Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?




T2B12 (A)

Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

So that stations within mutual communications range can communicate without tying up a repeater



T2B13 (C)

Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

In at least some portion of all these bands



T2B14 (A)

Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

A network of repeaters where signals received by one repeater are repeated by all the repeaters



T2C01 (D) [97.103(a)]

When do the FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

Never, FCC rules always apply



T2C02 (B)

What is meant by the term “NCS” used in net operation?

Net Control Station






T2C03 (C)

What should be done when using voice modes to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet



T2C04 (D)

What do RACES and ARES have in common?

Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies



T2C05 (A)

What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?

Formal messages exchanged by net stations



T2C06 (C)

Which of the following is an accepted practice to get the immediate attention of a net control station when reporting an emergency?

Begin your transmission by saying “Priority” or “Emergency” followed by your call sign



T2C07 (C)

Which of the following is an accepted practice for an amateur operator who has checked into a net?

Remain on frequency without transmitting until asked to do so by the net control station



T2C08 (A)

Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

Passing messages exactly as received



T2C09 (D)

Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property



T2C10 (D)

What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

The information needed to track the message



T2C11 (A)

What is meant by the term “check,” in reference to a formal traffic message?

The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message



T2C12 (A)

What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service



T3A01 (D)

What should you do if another operator reports that your station’s 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?

Try moving a few feet or changing the direction of your antenna if possible, as reflections may be causing multi-path distortion



T3A02 (B)

Why might the range of VHF and UHF signals be greater in the winter?
Less absorption by vegetation


T3A03 (C)

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?




T3A04 (B)

What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?

Signals could be significantly weaker



T3A05 (B)When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater~~


T3A06 (B)

What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?

Picket fencing



T3A07 (A)

What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?




T3A08 (C)

Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?

Random combining of signals arriving via different paths



T3A09 (B)

Which of the following results from the fact that skip signals refracted from the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception



T3A10 (D)

What may occur if data signals arrive via multiple paths?

Error rates are likely to increase



T3A11 (C)

Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

The ionosphere



T3A12 (B)

How might fog and light rain affect radio range on 10 meters and 6 meters?
Fog and light rain will have little effect on these bands



T3A13 (C)

What weather condition would decrease range at microwave frequencies?


T3B01 (C)

What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?




T3B02 (A)

What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?

The orientation of the electric field



T3B03 (C)

What are the two components of a radio wave?

Electric and magnetic fields



T3B04 (A)

How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?

At the speed of light



T3B05 (B)

How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?

The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases



T3B06 (D)

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz



T3B07 (A)

What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?

The approximate wavelength



T3B08 (B)

What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

30 to 300 MHz



T3B09 (D)

What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?

300 to 3000 MHz



T3B10 (C)

What frequency range is referred to as HF?

3 to 30 MHz





T3B11 (B)

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?

300,000,000 meters per second



T3C01 (C)

Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area?

UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere



T3C02 (C)

Which of the following is an advantage of HF vs VHF and higher frequencies?

Long distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF



T3C03 (B)

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?

The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted



T3C04 (B)

Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?

Sporadic E



T3C05 (A)

Which of the following effects might cause radio signals to be heard despite obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

Knife-edge diffraction



T3C06 (A)

What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

Tropospheric scatter



T3C07 (B)

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

6 meters



T3C08 (D)

What causes tropospheric ducting?

Temperature inversions in the atmosphere



T3C09 (A)

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F layer?

From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity



T3C10 (A)

Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

Six or ten meters



T3C11 (C)

Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?

The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light



T4A01 (D)

What must be considered to determine the minimum current capacity needed for a transceiver’s power supply?

  1. Efficiency of the transmitter at full power output
  2. Receiver and control circuit power
  3. Power supply regulation and heat dissipation
  4. All of these are correct



T4A02 (D)

How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?

  1. For logging contacts and contact information
  2. For sending and/or receiving CW
  3. For generating and decoding digital signals
  4. All of these choices are correct



T4A03 (A)

Why should wiring between the power source and radio be heavy-gauge wire and kept as short as possible?

To avoid voltage falling below that needed for proper operation



T4A04 (C)

Which computer sound card port is connected to a transceiver’s headphone or speaker output for operating digital modes?

Microphone or line input



T4A05 (A)

What is the proper location for an external SWR meter?

In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna



T4A06 (C)

Which of the following connections might be used between a voice transceiver and a computer for digital operation?

Receive audio, transmit audio, and push-to-talk (PTT)



T4A07 (C)

How is a computer’s sound card used when conducting digital communications?

The sound card provides audio to the radio’s microphone input and converts received audio to digital form



T4A08 (D)

Which of the following conductors provides the lowest impedance to RF signals?

Flat strap



T4A09 (D)

Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?

Ferrite choke





T4A10 (B)

What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver’s receive audio?

The alternator



T4A11 (A)

Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver’s power cable be connected?

At the battery or engine block ground strap



T4B01 (B)

What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

The output signal might become distorted



T4B02 (A)

Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?

The keypad or VFO knob



T4B03 (D)

What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?

To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received



T4B04 (B)

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?

Store the frequency in a memory channel



T4B05 (C)

Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?

Turn on the noise blanker



T4B06 (D)

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?

The receiver RIT or clarifier



T4B07 (B)

What does the term “RIT” mean?

Receiver Incremental Tuning



T4B08 (B)

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode



T4B09 (C)

Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth for minimizing noise and interference for SSB reception?

2400 Hz






T4B10 (A)

Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth for minimizing noise and interference for CW reception?

500 Hz



T4B11 (C)

What is the common meaning of the term “repeater offset”?

The difference between the repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies



T4B12 (A)

What is the function of automatic gain control, or AGC?

To keep received audio relatively constant



T4B13 (B)

Which of the following could be used to remove power line noise or ignition noise?

Noise blanker



T4B14 (C)

Which of the following is a use for the scanning function of an FM transceiver?

To scan through a range of frequencies to check for activity



T5A01 (D)

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?




T5A02 (B)

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?




T5A03 (D)

What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?




T5A04 (B)

What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?

Direct current



T5A05 (A)

What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?




T5A06 (A)

How much voltage does a mobile transceiver typically require?

About 12 volts






T5A07 (C)

Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?




T5A08 (B)

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?


  1. Aluminum
  2. Mercury



T5A09 (A)

What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?

Alternating current



T5A10 (C)

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?




T5A11 (A)

What is the unit of electromotive force?

The volt



T5A12 (D)

What describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?




T5A13 (A)

In which type of circuit is current the same through all components?




T5A14 (B)

In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?




T5B01 (C)

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

1500 milliamperes



T5B02 (A)

What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?

1500 kHz



T5B03 (C)

How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?

One thousand volts




T5B04 (A)

How many volts are equal to one microvolt?

One one-millionth of a volt



T5B05 (B)

Which of the following is equal to 500 milliwatts?

0.02 watts



T5B06 (C)

If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?

3 amperes



T5B07 (C)

If a frequency display calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?

3525 kHz



T5B08 (B)

How many microfarads are equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

1 microfarad



T5B09 (B)

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

3 dB



T5B10 (C)

What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

-6 dB



T5B11 (A)

What is the amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

10 dB



T5B12 (A)

Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?

28.400 MHz



T5B13 (C)

If a frequency display shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?

2.425 GHz



T5C01 (D)

What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?







T5C02 (A)

What is the basic unit of capacitance?

The farad



T5C03 (D)

What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?




T5C04 (C)

What is the basic unit of inductance?

The henry



T5C05 (A)

What is the unit of frequency?




T5C06 (A)

What does the abbreviation “RF” refer to?

Radio frequency signals of all types



T5C07 (B)

A radio wave is made up of what type of energy?




T5C08 (A)

What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?

Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)



T5C09 (A)

How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?

138 watts



T5C10 (B)

How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?

4.8 watts



T5C11 (B)

How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?

0.1 amperes



T5C12 (A)

What is impedance?

A measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit






T5C13 (D)

What are the units of impedance?




T5C14 (D)

What is the proper abbreviation for megahertz?



T5D01 (B)

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)



T5D02 (A)

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)



T5D03 (B)

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)



T5D04 (B)

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?

30 ohms



T5D05 (C)

What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

8 ohms



T5D06 (A)

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

3 ohms



T5D07 (D)

What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

1.5 amperes



T5D08 (C)

What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

2 amperes



T5D09 (C)

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

10 amperes






T5D10 (A)

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

1 volt



T5D11 (B)

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

10 volts



T5D12 (D)

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

20 volts



T5D13 (B)

What happens to current at the junction of two components in series?

It is unchanged



T5D14 (A)

What happens to current at the junction of two components in parallel?

It divides between them dependent on the value of the components



T5D15 (C)

What is the voltage across each of two components in series with a voltage source?

It is determined by the type and value of the components



T5D16 (D)

What is the voltage across each of two components in parallel with a voltage source?

The same voltage as the source



T6A01 (B)

What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?




T6A02 (C)

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?




T6A03 (B)

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?




T6A04 (B)

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?




T6A05 (D)

What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?




T6A06 (C)

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?




T6A07 (D)

What electrical component usually is constructed as a coil of wire?




T6A08 (B)

What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?




T6A09 (A)

What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?




T6A10 (D)

Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?

  1. Nickel-metal hydride
  2. Lithium-ion
  3. Lead-acid gel-cell
  4. All of these choices are correct



T6A11 (B)

Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?




T6B01 (D)

What class of electronic components uses a voltage or current signal to control current flow?




T6B02 (C)

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?




T6B03 (C)

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?




T6B04 (B)

Which of the following components can consist of three layers of semiconductor material?







T6B05 (A)

Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?




T6B06 (B)

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

With a stripe



T6B07 (B)

What does the abbreviation LED stand for?

Light Emitting Diode



T6B08 (A)

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

Field Effect Transistor



T6B09 (C)

What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?

Anode and cathode



T6B10 (B)

Which of the following could be the primary gain-producing component in an RF power amplifier?




T6B11 (A)

What is the term that describes a device’s ability to amplify a signal?




T6C01 (C)

What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?




T6C02 (A)

What is component 1 in figure T1?








T6C03 (B)

What is component 2 in figure T1?




T6C04 (C)

What is component 3 in figure T1?





T6C05 (C)

What is component 4 in figure T1?




T6C06 (B)

What is component 6 in figure T2?





T6C07 (D)

What is component 8 in figure T2?

Light emitting diode



T6C08 (C)

What is component 9 in figure T2?

Variable resistor



T6C09 (D)

What is component 4 in figure T2?




T6C10 (D)

What is component 3 in figure T3?

Variable inductor



T6C11 (A)

What is component 4 in figure T3?




T6C12 (A)

What do the symbols on an electrical schematic represent?

Electrical components



T6C13 (C)

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

The way components are interconnected



T6D01 (B)

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?




T6D02 (A)

What is a relay?

An electrically-controlled switch



T6D03 (A)

What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T2?

Single-pole single-throw



T6D04 (C)

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?







T6D05 (A)

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?




T6D06 (B)

What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?




T6D07 (A)

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?




T6D08 (D)

Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?




T6D09 (C)

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

Integrated circuit



T6D10 (C)

What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1?

Control the flow of current



T6D11 (A)

Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter



T6D12 (C)

Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?

To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire



T7A01 (B)

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?




T7A02 (B)

What is a transceiver?

A unit combining the functions of a transmitter and a receiver



T7A03 (B)

Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?







T7A04 (C)

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?




T7A05 (D)

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?




T7A06 (C)

What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?




T7A07 (D)

What is meant by “PTT”?

The push-to-talk function that switches between receive and transmit



T7A08 (C)

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?




T7A09 (B)

What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?
Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode



T7A10 (B)

What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?

An RF power amplifier



T7A11 (A)

Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

Between the antenna and receiver



T7B01 (D)

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

Talk farther away from the microphone



T7B02 (A)

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band



T7B03 (D)

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

  1. Fundamental overload
  2. Harmonics
  3. Spurious emissions
  4. All of these choices are correct



T7B04 (D)

Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference from an amateur transmitter to a nearby telephone?

Put an RF filter on the telephone



T7B05 (A)

How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver



T7B06 (A)

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel



T7B07 (D)

Which of the following can reduce overload to a VHF transceiver from a nearby FM broadcast station?

Band-reject filter



T7B08 (D)

What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

  1. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
  2. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
  3. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice
  4. All of these choices are correct



T7B09 (A)

What is a Part 15 device?

An unlicensed device that may emit low-powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service



T7B10 (D)

What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

  1. Your transmitter is slightly off frequency
  2. Your batteries are running low
  3. You are in a bad location
  4. All of these choices are correct



T7B11 (C)

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions



T7B12 (D)

What should be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?

Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly



T7C01 (A)

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests



T7C02 (B)

Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

An antenna analyzer



T7C03 (A)

What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line



T7C04 (C)

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

1 to 1



T7C05 (A)

Why do most solid-state amateur radio transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases?

To protect the output amplifier transistors



T7C06 (D)

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

Loss of -4 dB



T7C07 (C)

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

It is converted into heat



T7C08 (D)

What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?

Directional wattmeter



T7C09 (A)

Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?

Moisture contamination



T7C10 (D)

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable



T7C11 (C)

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption



T7C12 (B)

What does a dummy load consist of?

A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink






T7D01 (B)

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?

A voltmeter



T7D02 (B)

What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?

In parallel with the circuit



T7D03 (A)

How is a simple ammeter connected to a circuit?

In series with the circuit



T7D04 (D)

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

An ammeter



T7D05 (D)

What instrument is used to measure resistance?

An ohmmeter



T7D06 (C)

Which of the following might damage a multimeter?

Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting



T7D07 (D)

Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?

Voltage and resistance



T7D08 (C)

Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?

Rosin-core solder



T7D09 (C)

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold solder joint?

A grainy or dull surface



T7D10 (B)

What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?

The circuit contains a large capacitor



T7D11 (B)

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

Ensure that the circuit is not powered






T7D12 (B)

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured



T8A01 (C)

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

Single sideband



T8A02 (A)

What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?




T8A03 (C)

Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?




T8A04 (D)

Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?




T8A05 (C)

Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?




T8A06 (A)

Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

Upper sideband



T8A07 (C)

What is an advantage of single sideband (SSB) over FM for voice transmissions?

SSB signals have narrower bandwidth



T8A08 (B)

What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

3 kHz



T8A09 (C)

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?

Between 10 and 15 kHz



T8A10 (B)

What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 centimeter band?

About 6 MHz





T8A11 (B)

What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

150 Hz



T8B01 (C)

What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

Health and status of the satellite



T8B02 (B)

What is the impact of using too much effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

Blocking access by other users



T8B03 (D)

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

  1. Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over the earth
  2. The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
  3. The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
  4. All of these choices are correct



T8B04 (D)

What mode of transmission is used for satellite beacons?

  1. RTTY
  2. CW
  3. Packet
  4. All of these choices are correct



T8B05 (D)

What is a satellite beacon?

A transmission from a satellite that contains status information



T8B06 (B)

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

The Keplerian elements



T8B07 (C)

With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?

An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station



T8B08 (B)

What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?

The satellite uplink is in the 70 centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band



T8B09 (B)

What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

Rotation of the satellite and its antennas





T8B10 (C)

What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?

The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit



T8B11 (A)

Who may receive telemetry from a space station?
Anyone who can receive the telemetry signal


T8B12 (C)

Which of the following is a good way to judge whether your uplink power is neither too low nor too high?

Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon



T8C01 (C)

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

Radio direction finding



T8C02 (B)

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

A directional antenna



T8C03 (A)

What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?




T8C04 (C)

Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?

Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange



T8C05 (A)

What is a grid locator?

A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location



T8C06 (B)

How is access to some IRLP nodes accomplished?

By using DTMF signals



T8C07 (D)

What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?

A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques



T8C08 (A)

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)






T8C09 (D)

How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?

  1. By subscribing to an on line service
  2. From on line repeater lists maintained by the local repeater frequency coordinator
  3. From a repeater directory
  4. All of these choices are correct



T8C10 (D)

What must be done before you may use the Echolink system to communicate using a repeater?
You must register your call sign and provide proof of license



T8C11 (A)

What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the internet?

A gateway



T8D01 (D)

Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

  1. Packet radio
  2. IEEE 802.11
  3. JT65
  4. All of these choices are correct



T8D02 (A)

What does the term “APRS” mean?

Automatic Packet Reporting System



T8D03 (D)

Which of the following devices is used to provide data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?

A Global Positioning System receiver



T8D04 (C)

What type of transmission is indicated by the term “NTSC?”

An analog fast scan color TV signal



T8D05 (A)

Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?

Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations



T8D06 (B)

What does the abbreviation “PSK” mean?

Phase Shift Keying



T8D07 (A)

Which of the following best describes DMR (Digital Mobile Radio or Digital Migration Radio)?

A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel




T8D08 (D)

Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?

  1. A check sum that permits error detection
  2. A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
  3. Automatic repeat request in case of error
  4. All of these choices are correct



T8D09 (C)

What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?

International Morse



T8D10 (D)

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT suite?
A. Moonbounce or Earth-Moon-Earth
B. Weak-signal propagation beacons
C. Meteor scatter
D. All of these choices are correct



T8D11 (C)

What is an ARQ transmission system?

A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information



T8D12 (A)

Which of the following best describes Broadband-Hamnet(TM), also referred to as a high-speed multi-media network?

An amateur-radio-based data network using commercial Wi-Fi gear with modified firmware



T8D13 (B)

What is FT8?

A digital mode capable of operating in low signal-to-noise conditions that transmits on 15-second intervals



T8D14 (C)

What is an electronic keyer?

A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code



T9A01 (C)

What is a beam antenna?

An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction



T9A02 (A)

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer



T9A03 (B)

Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to the Earth’s surface?

A horizontally polarized antenna





T9A04 (A)

What is a disadvantage of the “rubber duck” antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers when compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

It does not transmit or receive as effectively



T9A05 (C)

How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?

Shorten it



T9A06 (C)

What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?

Directional antennas



T9A07 (A)

What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver, with its integral antenna, inside a vehicle?

Signals might not propagate well due to the shielding effect of the vehicle



T9A08 (C)

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?




T9A09 (C)

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?




T9A10 (C)

In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

Broadside to the antenna



T9A11 (C)

What is the gain of an antenna?

The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna



T9A12 (A)

What is an advantage of using a properly mounted 5/8 wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

It has a lower radiation angle and more gain than a 1/4 wavelength antenna



T9B01 (B)

Why is it important to have low SWR when using coaxial cable feed line?

To reduce signal loss



T9B02 (B)

What is the impedance of most coaxial cables used in amateur radio installations?

50 ohms




T9B03 (A)

Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line selected for amateur radio antenna systems?

It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations



T9B04 (A)

What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver’s output impedance



T9B05 (D)

In general, what happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?

The loss increases



T9B06 (B)

Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

A Type N connector



T9B07 (C)

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

They are commonly used at HF frequencies



T9B08 (A)

Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?

To prevent an increase in feed line loss



T9B09 (B)

What can cause erratic changes in SWR readings?

A loose connection in an antenna or a feed line



T9B10 (C)

What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-8 coaxial cable?

RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency



T9B11 (C)

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?

Air-insulated hard line



T0A01 (B)

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?

Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion



T0A02 (D)

What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?

  1. It may cause injury by heating tissue
  2. It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
  3. It may cause involuntary muscle contractions
  4. All of these choices are correct



T0A03 (C)

In the United States, what is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?

Equipment ground



T0A04 (B)

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

To interrupt power in case of overload



T0A05 (C)

Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?

Excessive current could cause a fire



T0A06 (D)

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

  1. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
  2. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground
  3. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter
  4. All of these choices are correct



T0A07 (D)

Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line?

Mount all of the protectors on a metal plate that is in turn connected to an external ground rod



T0A08 (A)

What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?

A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot conductor



T0A09 (C)

What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?
Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap



T0A10 (A)

What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?

The battery could overheat, give off flammable gas, or explode



T0A11 (D)

What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?

You might receive an electric shock from the charge stored in large capacitors



T0B01 (C)

When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses?

At all times when any work is being done on the tower



T0B02 (C)

What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?

Put on a carefully inspected climbing harness (fall arrester) and safety glasses



T0B03 (D)

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?




T0B04 (C)

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires



T0B05 (C)

What is the purpose of a gin pole?

To lift tower sections or antennas



T0B06 (D)

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

Enough so that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires



T0B07 (C)

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

This type of tower must not be climbed unless retracted or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed



T0B08 (C)

What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?

Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other



T0B09 (C)

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines



T0B10 (C)

Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

Sharp bends must be avoided



T0B11 (B)

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

Local electrical codes



T0B12 (C)

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

Ensure that connections are short and direct



T0B13 (B)

What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?
Prevent loosening of the guy line from vibration





T0C01 (D)

What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?

Non-ionizing radiation



T0C02 (B)

Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?

50 MHz



T0C03 (C)

What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?

50 watts PEP at the antenna



T0C04 (D)

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

  1. Frequency and power level of the RF field
  2. Distance from the antenna to a person
  3. Radiation pattern of the antenna
  4. All of these choices are correct



T0C05 (D)

Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others



T0C06 (D)

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

  1. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
  2. By calculation based on computer modeling
  3. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
  4. All of these choices are correct



T0C07 (B)

What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?

They might receive a painful RF burn



T0C08 (A)

Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits?

Relocate antennas



T0C09 (B)

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed



T0C10 (A)

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

It affects the average exposure of people to radiation




T0C11 (C)

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting



T0C12 (A)

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause genetic damage



T0C13 (C)

If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?

2 times as much


END OF Questions